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AP Bio Ch. 20 Study Guide Test Your Knowledge

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
The role of restriction enzymes in DNA technology is to
a.
provide a vector for the transfer of recombinant DNA
b.
produce cDNA from mRNA
c.
produce a cut (usually staggard) at specific restriction sites on DNA
d.
reseal “sticky ends” after base pairing of complementary bases
e.
denature DNA into single strands that can hybridize with complementary sequences
 

 2. 
Yeast has become important in genetic engineering because it
a.
has RNA splicing machinery
b.
has plasmids that can be genetically engineered
c.
enables the study of eukaryotic gene regulation and expression
d.
grows readily and rapidly in the laboratory
e.
does all of the above
 

 3. 
Which of the following DNA sequences would most likely be a restriction site?
a.
AACCGG
TTGGCC
d.
AATTCCGG
TTAAGGCC
b.
GGTTGG
CCAACC
e.
GAATTC
CTTAAG
c.
AAGG
TTCC
 

 4. 
A plasmid has two antibiotic resistance genes, one for aampicillin and one for tetracycline. It is treated with a restriction enzyme that cuts in the middle of the ampicillin gene. DNA fragments containing a human globin gene were cut with the same enzyme. The plasmids and fragments are mixed, treated with ligase, and used to transform bacterial cells. Clones that have taken up the recombinant DNA
a.
are blue and can grow on plates with both antibiotics
b.
can grow on plates with ampicillin  but not with tetracycline
c.
can grow on plates with tetracycline but not with ampicillin
d.
cannot grow with any antibiotics
e.
can grow on plates with tetracycline and are blue
 

 5. 
If the first three nucleotides in a six-nucleotide restriction site are CTG, what would the next three nucleotides most likely be?
a.
AGG
b.
GTC
c.
CTG
d.
CAG
e.
GAC
 

 6. 
The following segment of DNA has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments a, b, and c. Which of the following gels produced by electrophoresis would represent the separation and identity of these fragments?
a.
picture a
b.
picture b
c.
picture c
d.
picture d
e.
picture e
 

 7. 
Which of the following processes or procedures does not involve any nucleic acid hybridization
a.
separatioin of fragments by gel elctrophoresis
b.
Southern blotting
c.
polymerase chain reaction
d.
DNA profiling
e.
DNA microassay assay
 

 8. 
Which of the following statements is not true of restriction sites?
a.
modification by methylation of bases within them prevents restriciton of bacterial DNA
b.
they are usually symmetrical sequences of four to eight nucleotides
c.
they signal the attachment of RNA polymerase
d.
each is cut by a specific restriction enzyme
e.
cutting one in the middle of a functional and identifiable gene gene is used to screen clones that have taken up foreign DNA
 

 9. 
Which of the following statements describes a difficulty in getting prokaryotic cells to express eukaryotic genes?
a.
the signals that control gene expression are different, and prokaryotic promoter regions must be added to the vector
b.
the genetic code differs because prokaryotes substitute the bases uracil for thymine
c.
prokaryotic cells cannot transcribe introns because their genes do not have them
d.
the ribosomes of prokaryotes are not large enough to handle long eukaryotic genes
e.
the RNA splicing enzymes of bacteria work differently from those of eukaryotes
 

 10. 
Complementary DNA does not create as complete a library of genes as the shotgun approach because
a.
it has eliminated introns from the genes
b.
a cell produces mRNA for only a small portion of its genes
c.
the shotgun approach produces more restriction fragments
d.
cDNA is not as easily integrated into plasmids
e.
reverse transcriptase cannot transcribe introns
 

 11. 
Which is the last enzyme involved in making recombinant plasmids?
a.
restriction enzyme
b.
reverse transcriptase
c.
DNA ligase
d.
DNA polymerase
e.
RNA polymerase
 

 12. 
Which is the first enzyme used in the production of cDNA?
a.
restriction enzyme
b.
reverse transcriptase
c.
DNA ligase
d.
DNA polymerase
e.
RNA polymerase
 

 13. 
Which enzyme is used in the polymerase chain reaction ?
a.
restriction enzyme
b.
reverse transcriptase
c.
DNA ligase
d.
DNA polymerase
e.
RNA polymerase
 

 14. 
Which is the first enzyme used in the productioin of RFLPs?
a.
restriction enzyme
b.
reverse transcriptase
c.
DNA ligase
d.
DNA polymerase
e.
RNA polymerase
 

 15. 
You are attempting to introduce a gene that imparts resistance to larval moths in bean plants. Which of the following vectors are you most likely to use?
a.
phage DNA
b.
E. coli plasmid
c.
Ti plasmid
d.
yeast plasmid
e.
bacterial artificial chromosome
 

 16. 
STRs (short tandem repeats) are a valuable tool for
a.
DNA microassay assays
b.
infecting plant cells with recombinant DNA
c.
acting as probes in Southern blots
d.
genetic profiling
e.
PCR to produce multiple copies of a DNA segment
 

 17. 
You have affixed the chromosomes from a cell onto a microscope slide. Which of trhe following would not make a good radioactively labeled probe to help map a particular gene to one of theose chromosomes? (Assume that the DNA of the chromosomes and probes is single stranded.)
a.
cDNA made from the mRNA transcribed from the gene
b.
a portion of the amino acid sequence of that protein
c.
mRNA transcribed from the gene
d.
a peice of the restriction fragment on which the gene is located
e.
a sequence of nucleotides determined from a known sequence of amino acids in the protein product of the gene
 

 18. 
Which of the following is not true of adult stem cells?
a.
They have been found not only in bone marrow, but also in other tissues, including the adult brain
b.
They have been successfully grown in culture and made to differentiate into specialized cells
c.
They are capable of developing into several (but not all) types of cells
d.
These relatively unspecialized cells continually reproduce themselves in the body
e.
They come from skin cells that have been induced to become pluripotent by the introduction of cloned “stem cell” master regulatory genes
 

 19. 
A “pharm” animal is
a.
a transgenic animal that produces large quantities of a pharmaceutical product
b.
an animal used by the pharmaceutical industry to test new medical treatments
c.
a cloned animal that was produced from an adult cell nucleus inserted into an egg
d.
a transgenic animal that produces more meat
e.
a genetically modified organism whose production is permitted in the United States but not in the European Union
 

 20. 
Petroleum-lysing bacteria are being engineered for the treatment of oil spills. Which of the following is the most realistic danger of these bacteria to the environment?
a.
mutations leading to the production of a strain pathogenic to humans
b.
extinction of natural microbes due to the competitive advantage of the “petro-bacterium”
c.
destruction of natural oil deposits
d.
poisoning of the food chain
e.
contamination of the water
 

 21. 
Which of the following would be useful in signaling the the prescence of a disease-causing allele even if the gene has not yet been identified?
a.
RNA interference
b.
in situ hybridization
c.
short tandem repeats
d.
single nucleotide polymorphisms
e.
RT-PCR
 

 22. 
The following restriction fragment contains a gene whose recessive allele is lethal. The normal allele has restriciton sites for the restriction enzyme PSTI at sites I and II. THe recessive allele lacks restriction sites I. An individual whose sister had the lethal trait is being tested to determine if he is a carrier of that allele. Which of the following band patterns would be produced on a gel if he is a carrier (heterozygous for the gene)?
a.
picture a
b.
picture b
c.
picture c
d.
picture d
e.
picture e
 



 
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